Exodus 21:2-11 and 20-21 contain laws about slaves. Does the Bible condone slavery?

Consider one of the principles of hermeneutics: interpret the vague in light of the clear.

• There are multiple passages that condemn slavery in no uncertain terms (Exodus 21:16; 1 Timothy 1:10; Galatians 3:28), and even more that make it clear God is the God of all peoples, who loves all, and died for all. Every tribe, tongue, and nation will be in Heaven. It’s Biblically clear God is not pro-slavery or pro-racial superiority, or anything hateful like that.
• Note God’s explicit commands to the Israelites to not oppress people like they were in Egypt (Exodus 22:21-24; 23:9).
• The people are not identified with or as property (see Exodus 21:33-22:15); they are never stripped of their humanity/personhood and rights there of (Exodus 21:20 “When a man strikes his slave, male or female, with a rod and the slave dies under his hand, he shall be avenged.” The phrase “his money” is referring to his productivity/labor).
• Further, the Hebrew word ‘ebed can also be translated servant; it designates a wide range of social & economic roles. Exodus 21:5-6. Debt was the most common reason people became servants. So employing a destitute person was a benefit to them (e.g. Genesis 47:20-25). The stability and security provided by being under a good master could lead some to choose to stay in that role. Exodus 21:7-11. It was not uncommon for a poor family who couldn’t afford a wedding dowry to “sell” a daughter to a rich family as a servant or wife, and it would’ve been culturally normal for these women to face lesser treatment. These laws are designed to prevent that and protect the person.

Is there a difference between condoning and explaining/acknowledging something? Yes.

• Consider the numerous Biblical commands to be peacemakers, and pursue peace, and live at peace with one another. Proverbs even explicitly says it’s better to be a peacemaker than a conquering warrior. Yet, the Bible also records numerous instances of the Israelites being commanded to war, in some cases wiping out whole peoples (Numbers 16; Numbers 31:17-18, Joshua 6:17; 10:40).
• CRITICAL: One must be open to the possibility that God has good reasons for these instances.
• Many who were wiped out were incredibly arrogant in their sin and rejection of God. They received both what they wanted and their due penalty that God forewarned all about- eternal separation from God.

I bring up that example because believers must be open to several possibilities.

• Is it possible God used slavery on conquered peoples as a means of discipline or punishment, carrying out His just judgment through humanity? Considering He did this to His own people through the Babylonian Captivity, why could He not do that to other nations? (See Deuteronomy 20, especially v14)
• Is it possible God used slavery to bring peoples to Him and actually redeem them? Consider the other laws throughout Leviticus about how to treat foreigners well, and consider Exodus 12:43-44 where foreign slaves were actually able to be brought into the Passover through circumcision. If there were people who would not interact with anyone capable of explaining who God was and what it meant to be in covenant with Him in their own nation, wouldn’t it then be a blessing to be brought to Israel and learn of the true God, even if the original means of arrival seemed harsh (Hebrews 12:11)?
• Note that slaves/servants (word ebed) still participated in the blessing of Sabbath rest (Deuteronomy 5:14-15) and were afforded protection and sanctuary (Deuteronomy 23:15-16).

A believer must accept these possibilities based on the truth that God is always good, always just, and always righteous in His actions, even if we don’t understand them.

But what about unbelievers?

An unbeliever does not have to accept them, but if they won’t even consider them as possibilities, then this is a conversation too far down the road and we need to back up to: does God exist? If so, is He good?